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IMPORTANT ADDENDUM: Forgot to mention that the total cost of the shares at the time of conversion is equal. In my scenario, 1 share of "A" at time of conversion is $20, and 1 share of "B" is $2, so total investment is $20 in each case.
This conversion is not an open-market sale, so I am assuming there are no tax implications of the conversion itself, only tax implications upon a sale. Correct?
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